Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 01:45
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
What should you answer when someone says to you in French, "au plaisir de vous revoir"?
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Should we consider deporting democrats to Canada?
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.