Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 01:26
There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
In what circumstances might a chaperone be appropriate for a medical examination?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
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What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.